
jjbrooksmd at gmail
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Sep 21, 2007, 9:46 AM
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[ORT-L] Tibial Nonunion
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A question for the group: I have a 60 year old female with a tibial nonunion. It was an open grade II midshaft short oblique Fx (sorry, no XR pics right now), Rx-ed with immediate I&D and a minimally-reamed static 9mm nail. Soft tissues healed well. Fibula healed, tibia now with hypertrophic nonunion. Anatomically-aligned. Not infected, ESR CRP normal, although patient is recently diagnosed type II diabetic. She's a NON-smoker. Otherwise healthy. I'm planning a reamed exchange nailing, hopefully up to a 12mm nail, and statically locking it. Also plan on medullary implantation of OP1 while passing the new nail. QUESTION: Do I need to do a fibular osteotomy or is the reamed locked exch-nail enough? Would anyone use OP1 also or is it overkill? Thoughts appreciated! Jeff -- Jeffrey J. Brooks, MD Orthopaedic Surgery & Sports Medicine Center 1290 Summer Street, #4400 Stamford, CT 06905 --- [This E-mail scanned for viruses by Declude Virus]
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